Network+
Practice_Exam_01
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1. Select ALL components that operate strictly at the Physical layer of the OSI model:
Hubs, repeaters, copper/fiber cabling, and standalone transceivers transmit raw bits with no frame awareness—pure Layer 1 functions.
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2. OSI layer number 7 is also called the ______ layer.
Layer 7 provides end-user services and is known as the Application layer.
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3. Select ALL functions that are handled by the Presentation layer. (Choose THREE)
Layer 6 deals with encryption/decryption, data compression, and format or character-set translation before data reaches the Session layer.
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4. A multilayer switch performs Layer-3 routing decisions at wire-speed primarily because those look-ups occur in:
Modern multilayer switches use application-specific integrated circuits (ASICs) and hardware tables (FIB/Adjacency) rather than the general-purpose CPU.
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5. Which networking device interconnects dissimilar IP subnets and chooses the next hop based on Layer 3 logical addresses?
Routers examine destination IP addresses (Layer 3) to forward packets toward the best path.
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6. Which TWO protocols in the list operate at the Transport layer? (Select ALL that apply)
TCP and UDP reside at Layer 4 and add port numbers for multiplexing conversations. ICMP and IP sit at Layer 3, while HTTP is Layer 7.
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7. Which OSI layer adds source and destination port numbers so that multiple conversations can share a single IP connection?
Port numbers live in the Transport layer (Layer 4) header and enable TCP/UDP multiplexing.
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8. For the Session, Presentation, and Application layers (L5-L7), the PDU is generally referred to simply as ______.
Upper-layer PDUs are typically called data because no additional OSI headers are added above the Transport layer.
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9. The protocol-data unit (PDU) for the Physical layer is known as a ________.
Layer 1 transmits raw bits (sometimes called symbols).
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10. Which OSI layer is primarily responsible for data encryption, compression, and character-set translation before information is handed to the Session layer?
These functions occur at the Presentation layer (Layer 6). It converts application data into a format suitable for the network and vice-versa. See Cloudflare OSI overview.
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11. Which OSI layer provides reliable, connection-oriented delivery using sequence numbers, acknowledgements, and flow control?
Reliability mechanisms such as TCP operate at the Transport layer (Layer 4).
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12. Select ALL features commonly found on enterprise load-balancer appliances:
Modern load balancers can terminate TCP sessions, handle SSL/TLS, cache objects, and enforce QoS/prioritization for certain traffic classes.
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13. Which device is OFTEN marketed as a “multilayer switch” because it combines hardware-based switching with IP routing functions?
A router embedded inside a switch chassis—commonly just called a router—provides both Layer 2 and Layer 3 operations, earning the multilayer label.
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14. When UDP is used instead of TCP, the Transport-layer PDU is more precisely called a ______.
UDP is message-oriented; its Transport-layer units are called datagrams rather than segments.
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15. The Data-Link layer is responsible for reliable end-to-end delivery using sequence numbers and acknowledgements, similar to TCP.
False. That reliability is a Transport-layer (Layer 4) service; the Data-Link layer only handles local-segment framing and MAC addressing.
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16. OSI layer number 1 is known as the ______ layer.
Layer 1 of the OSI model is the Physical layer, which defines cabling, voltage, and signalling.
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17. Which function is LEAST likely to be performed by a dedicated hardware load balancer?
VPN tunnel termination is typically handled by firewalls or concentrators, not by standard L4-L7 load-balancing appliances.
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18. Select ALL layers that are traditionally grouped as the “upper layers” of the OSI model:
Layers 7-5 (Application, Presentation, Session) sit closest to the user and are collectively called the upper layers.
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19. IPsec provides encryption and authentication at which OSI layer?
IPsec secures packets at the Network layer (Layer 3), unlike SSL VPNs that live higher in the stack.
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20. A next-generation firewall (NGFW) is inspecting traffic for user-specific application policies. At which OSI layer is this inspection MOST LIKELY performed?
Modern NGFWs include deep-packet inspection that understands application semantics, placing the inspection at the Application layer (Layer 7).
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21. A media converter that changes multimode-fiber signals to copper-Ethernet operates at which OSI layer?
Because it merely changes the physical signalling medium, a media converter is a Layer 1 (Physical layer) device.
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22. A multilayer switch merely provides more physical ports than a traditional switch; it does NOT perform any routing functions.
FALSE. Multilayer switches include hardware-based Layer 3 routing (often via specialized ASICs) in addition to Layer 2 switching.
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23. The protocol-data unit at the Network layer is called a *segment*.
False. A *segment* belongs to the Transport layer; the Network-layer PDU is a *packet* or *datagram*.
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24. A standalone wireless access point (not a SOHO router) is BEST described as what kind of OSI device?
APs bridge 802.11 radio segments to the wired Ethernet, forwarding based on MAC addresses—therefore they are Layer 2 bridges.
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25. During routing, which OSI layer may fragment frames so they can cross networks that support different maximum-frame sizes?
Frame fragmentation is a Layer 3 (Network) responsibility because IP must ensure packets can traverse heterogeneous links.
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26. The term frame is reserved exclusively for PDUs at the Network layer (Layer 3).
False. *Frame* is the PDU for the Data-Link layer (Layer 2); Layer 3 uses *packets*.
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27. Select ALL protocols that reside at the Network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model:
IP, ICMP, ARP and OSPF all use Layer 3 addressing and routing functions, unlike TCP (L4) or HTTP (L7).
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28. OSI layer number 2 is formally called the ______ layer.
Layer 2 handles framing and MAC addressing; its proper name is the Data-Link layer.
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29. Which OSI layer establishes, manages, and tears down logical dialogs between two networked hosts?
The Session layer (Layer 5) controls the start, maintenance, and graceful close of conversations.
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30. Voltage levels, bit-timing and signal encoding (e.g., 8b/10b) are specified at which OSI layer?
Electrical/optical signalling characteristics are defined by the Physical layer (Layer 1).
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31. The PDU for the Data-Link layer is properly called a ________.
At Layer 2 an Ethernet PDU is a frame (containing a header, payload and FCS).
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32. Which intermediary device caches web content, enforces URL filtering, and logically sits between internal clients and external servers?
A proxy server (forward or transparent) intercepts client requests and may cache or scan content before forwarding.
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33. A 48-bit MAC address is used for node identification at which OSI layer?
MAC addressing is part of the Data-Link layer (Layer 2) header.
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34. HTTP, FTP, DNS, and POP3 are examples of protocols that live at which OSI layer?
End-user network services such as web browsing and email use protocols at the Application layer (Layer 7).
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35. Which networking device regenerates electrical or optical signals but does not interpret MAC addresses or break collision domains?
A repeater (or a classic multi-port hub) is a pure Physical-layer device that simply amplifies bits.
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36. In storage terminology, which statement correctly contrasts a SAN with a NAS device?
A SAN presents block-level storage that looks like a local disk to hosts, while a NAS offers file-level access (e.g., SMB/NFS) across the network.
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37. Which device forwards frames based on MAC addresses and is therefore classified as a Layer 2 component in the OSI model?
Switches use hardware (ASIC)-based forwarding tables keyed to MAC addresses, operating at the Data-Link layer.
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38. OSI layer number 4 is more commonly called the ______ layer.
Layer 4 provides reliable or best-effort host-to-host delivery and is called the Transport layer.
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39. Which statement about a Layer 2 Ethernet switch is TRUE?
Layer 2 switches forward frames using MAC addresses and create one collision domain per port, reducing collisions.
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40. Which OSI layer sets synchronization checkpoints so a large file transfer can restart at a known point if the connection fails?
Checkpoints and dialog management are duties of the Session layer (Layer 5).
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41. A legacy hub creates a separate collision domain for each port, improving performance over a switch.
False. A hub is a multi-port repeater; all ports share one collision domain, whereas each switch port has its own.
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42. At the Transport layer, the protocol data unit (PDU) is known as a ________, whereas the Network layer PDU is called a ________.
Layer 4 uses segments (TCP/UDP), and Layer 3 wraps those into packets for routing. This terminology appears frequently in CompTIA objectives.
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43. The protocol-data unit (PDU) at the Network layer is called a ______.
According to the OSI model, Layer 3 carries packets (sometimes called datagrams).
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44. When a user navigates to https://mail.example.com, the data is first processed by the Application layer and then successively encapsulated down through Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data-Link, and finally reaches the Physical layer for transmission.
That statement is TRUE; encapsulation on the sender follows a top-down sequence, while the receiver decapsulates bottom-up.
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45. Which OSI layer is sometimes nicknamed “the switching layer” because network bridges and switches make forwarding decisions there?
Layer 2 (Data-Link) handles MAC addressing and switching logic in Ethernet networks.
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